How about ANY FINITE SEQUENCE AT ALL?

  • orcrist@lemm.ee
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    18 hours ago

    Please read it all again. They didn’t rely on the conversion. It’s just a convenient way to create a counterexample.

    Anyway, here’s a simple equivalent. Let’s consider a number like pi except that wherever pi has a 9, this new number has a 1. This new number is infinite and doesn’t repeat. So it also answers the original question.

    • Umbrias@beehaw.org
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      15 hours ago

      “please consider a number that isnt pi” so not relevant, gotcha. it does not answer the original question, this new number is not normal, sure, but that has no bearing on if pi is normal.

      • spireghost@lemmy.zip
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        12 hours ago

        OK, fine. Imagine that in pi after the quadrillionth digit, all 1s are replaced with 9. It still holds